Chapter 6


A. Flight Plan

1. Current and forecast weather at departure, en route, destination and alternate airports including:

b. Terminal forecasts
c. Area forecasts
d. Wind aloft forecasts
e. TWEB route forecasts
g. Pilot Reports

2. Route selection including :

a. Selection of checkpoints
b. Selection of best altitude
c. Selection of alternate airport

3. Appropriate sectional charts:

a. Knowledge of chart symbols
b. Airspace
c. Communication frequencies

4. Current information on facilities and procedures:

b. Special Notices
c. Services available at destination
d. Airport conditions including lighting, obstructions, and other notations in AFD.

5. Flight log :

a. Measurement of course (true and magnetic)
b. Distances between checkpoints and total
c. How true airspeed was obtained
d. Estimated ground speed
e. Total time en route
f. Amount of fuel required

6. Weight and balance:

a. Calculations for planned trip
b. Calculations for weight added or removed immediately before departure.

B. Navigation

1. What is an RMI? (P/CG)

RMI is an abbreviation for radio magnetic indicator. It is an aircraft navigational; instrument coupled with a gyro compass or similar compass that indicates the direction of a selected NAVAID (NDB or VOR) and indicates bearing with respect to the heading of the aircraft.

2. What is an HSI? (FAA-H-8083-15)

The HSI (horizontal situation indicator) is a flight navigation instrument that combines the heading indicator with a CDI, in order to provide the pilot with better situational awareness of location with respect to the course line.

3. What is RNAV? (FAA-H-8083-15)

RNAV (area navigation) provides enhanced navigational capability to the pilot, by computing the airplane position, actual track and ground speed, then providing meaningful information relative to a route of flight selected by the pilot. Typical RNAV equipment provides the pilot with distance, time, bearing and cross track error relative to the selected TO or “active” way point and the selected route. Present day RNAV includes INS, LORAN, VOR/DME, and GPS systems.

4. What is DME? (AIM 1-1-7)

Equipment (airborne and ground) used to measure, in nautical miles, the slant range distance of an aircraft from the DME navigational aid. Aircraft equipped with DME are provided with distance and ground speed information when receiving a VORTAC or TACTAN facility. Operating frequency range of a DME according to ICAO Annex 10 is from 960 MHz to 1215 MHz .

5. What is the effective range distance for DME? (AIM 1-1-7)

Operating on the line-of-sight principle, DME furnishes distance information with a very high degree of accuracy. Reliable signals may be received at distances up to 199 NM at line-of-sight altitude with an accuracy of better than ½ mile or 3 percent of the distance whichever is greater. Distance information received from DME equipment is SLANT RANGE distance and not actual horizontal distance.

6. Give a brief description of GPS. (AIM 1-1-19)

The Global Positioning System is a satellite-based radio navigation system that broadcasts a signal used by receivers to determine precise position anywhere in the world. The receiver tracks multiple satellites and determines a pseudo range measurement that is then used to determine the used location.

7. Can handheld GPS receivers and GPS systems certified for VFR operations be used for IFR operations? (AIM 1-1-19)

No, for the following reasons:
a. RAIM capability – VFR GPS receivers and all handheld units have no RAIM alerting capability. Loss of the required number of satellites in view, or the detection of a position error, cannot be displayed to the pilot by such receivers.
b. Database currency – In many receivers, an updatable database is used for navigation fixes, airports, and instrument procedures. These databases must be maintained to the current update for IFR operation, but no such requirement exists for VFR use.
c. Antenna location – In many VFR installation of GPS receivers, antenna location is more a matter of convenience than performance. In IFR installations, care is exercised to ensure that an adequate clear view is provided for the antenna to see satellites. If an alternate location is used, some portion of the aircraft may block the view of the antenna, causing a greater opportunity to lose navigation.

Note: VFR and handheld GPS systems are not authorized for IFR navigation, instrument approaches, or as a principal instrument flight reference. During IFR operations they may be considered only as an aid to situational awareness.

8. With which frequency band does the VOR equipment operate? (AIM 1-1-3)

VHF band – 108.00 through 117.95 MHz.

9. What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR equipment? (14 CFR 91.171)

a. VOT check; + / – 4°
b. Ground check point; + / – 4°
c. Airborne checkpoint; + / – 6°
d. Dual VOR check; 4° between each other
e. Select a radial over a known ground point; + / – 6°
A repair station can use a radiated test signal, but only the technician performing the test can make an entry in the logbook.
10. What records must be kept concerning VOR checks? (14 CFR 91.171)

Each person making a VOR check shall enter the date, place, and bearing error and sign the aircraft log or other reliable record.

11. Where can a pilot find the location of the nearest VOT testing stations? (AIM 1-1-4)

Locations of airborne check points, ground check points and VOTs are published in the A/FD and are depicted on the A/G voice communications panels on the NOS IFR area chart and IFR en route low altitude chart.

12. How may the course sensitivity be checked on a VOR receiver? (FAA-H-8083-15)

In addition to receiver tolerance checks required by regulations, course sensitivity may be checked by recording the number of degrees of change in the course selected as you rotate the OBS to move the CDI from center to the last dot on either side. This should be between 10° and 12°.

13. How can a pilot determine if a VOR or VORTAC has been taken out of service for maintenance? (AIM 1-1-12)

During periods of routine or emergency maintenance, coded identification (or code and voice, where applicable) is removed from certain FAA NAVAIDs. Removal of identification serves as a warning to pilots that the facility is officially off the air for tune-up or repair and may be unreliable even though intermittent or constant signals are received.

14. How do you find an ADF relative bearing? (FAA-H-8083-15)

A relative bearing is the angular relationship between the aircraft heading and the station measured clockwise from the nose. The bearing is real directly on the ADF dial measured clockwise from zero.

15. How do you find an ADF magnetic bearing? (FAA-H-8083-15)

A magnetic bearing is the direction of an imaginary line from the aircraft to the station or the station to the aircraft referenced to magnetic north. To determine, use this formula :

MH + RB = MB
(Magnetic Heading + Relative Bearing = Magnetic Bearing)
If the sum is more than 360, subtract 360 to get the magnetic bearing to the station. The reciprocal of this number is the magnetic bearing from the station.

16. What is ADF homing? (FAA-H-8083-15)

ADF homing is flying the aircraft on any heading required to keep the ADF needle on zero until the station is reached.

17. What is ADF tracking? (FAA-H-8083-15)

ADF tracking is a procedure used to fly a straight geographic flight path inbound to or outbound from an NDB. A heading is established that will maintain the desired track.

18. If a diversion to an alternate airport becomes necessary due to an emergency, what procedures should be used? (FAA-H-8083-25)

a. Consider relative distance to all suitable alternates;
b. Select the one most appropriate for the emergency at hand;
c. Determine magnetic course to alternate and divert immediately;
d. Wind correction, actual distance and estimated time/fuel can then be computed while en route to alternate.

19. How can the course to an alternate be computed quickly? (FAA-H-8083-25)

Courses to alternates can be quickly measured by using a straight edge and the compass roses shown at VOR stations on the chart. VOR radials and airway courses (already oriented to magnetic direction) printed on the chart can be used to approximate magnetic bearings during VFR flights. Use the radial of a nearby VOR or airway that most closely parallels the course to the station. Distances can be determined by placing a finger at the appropriate place on a straight edge of a piece of paper and then measuring the approximate distance on the mileage scale at the bottom of the chart.

C. Airport and Traffic Pattern Operations

1. What recommended entry and departure procedures should be utilized at airports without an operating control tower? (AIM 4-3-3)

When entering a traffic pattern, enter the pattern in level flight, abeam the midpoint of the runway at pattern altitude. Maintain pattern altitude until abeam the approach end of the landing runway on the downwind leg. Complete the turn to final at least ¼ mile from the runway. When departing a traffic pattern, continue straight out, or exit with a 45-degree turn (to the left when in a left-hand traffic pattern; to the right when in a right-hand traffic pattern) beyond the departure end of the runway, after reaching pattern altitude.

2. What are the recommended traffic advisory practices at airports without an operating control tower? (AIM 4-1-9)

Pilots of inbound traffic should monitor and communicate as appropriate on the designated CTAF from 10 miles to landing. Pilots of departing aircraft should monitor / communicate on the appropriate frequency from start-up, during taxi, and until 10 miles from the airport unless federal regulations or local procedures require otherwise.

3. A large or turbine-powered aircraft is required to enter Class D airspace at what altitude? (14 CFR 91.129)

A large or turbine-powered airplane shall, unless otherwise required by the applicable distance-from-clouds criteria, enter the traffic pattern at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet above the elevation of the airport and maintain at least 1,500 feet until further descent is required for a safe landing.

4. If operating into an airport without an operating control tower which is located within the Class D airspace of an airport with an operating control tower, is it always necessary to communicate with the tower? (14 CFR 91.129)

Yes, operations to or from an airport in Class D airspace (airport traffic area) require communication with the tower even when operating to / from a satellite airport.

5. When conducting flight operations into an airport with an operating control tower, when should initial contact be established? (AIM 4-3-2)

When operating at an airport where traffic control is being exercised by a control tower, pilots are required to maintain two-way radio contact with the tower while operating within Class B, Class C, and Class D surface areas unless the tower authorizes otherwise. Initial call-up should be made about 15 miles from the airport.

6. When departing a Class D surface area, what communication procedures are recommended? (AIM 4-3-2)

Unless there is good reason to leave the tower frequency before exiting the Class B, Class C and Class D surface areas, it is good operating practice to remain on the tower frequency for the purpose of receiving traffic information. In the interest of reducing tower frequency congestion, pilots are reminded that it is not necessary to request permission to leave the tower frequency once outside of Class B, Class C, and Class D surface areas.

7. You discover that both the transmitter and receiver in your aircraft have become inoperative. What procedures should be used when attempting to enter a traffic pattern and land at a tower controlled airport? (AIM 4-2-13)

a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area.
b. Determine direction and flow of traffic.
c. Join the traffic pattern and wait for light gun signals.
d. Daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings. Nighttime, acknowledge by flashing landing light or navigation lights.

8. When a control tower, located at an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the lower limit of the controlled airspace?

During the hours the tower is not in operation, Class E surface area rules or a combination of Class E rules down to 700 feet AGL and Class G rules to the surface will become applicable. Check the A/FD for specifics.

9. If the rotating beacon is on at an airport during daylight hours, what significance does this have? (AIM 2-1-8)

In Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas, operation of the airport beacon during the hours of daylight often indicates that the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet . ATC clearance in accordance with Part 91 is required for landing, takeoff and flight in the traffic pattern. Pilots should not rely solely on the operation of the airport beacon to indicate if weather conditions are IFR or VFR. There is no regulatory requirement for daylight operation, and it is the pilot’s responsibility to comply with proper preflight planning as required by 14 CFR Part 91.

10. What are the various types of runway markings (precision instrument runway) and what do they consist of? (AIM 2-3-3)

a. Runway designators – Runway number is the whole number nearest one-tenth the magnetic azimuth of the centerline of the runway, measured clockwise from the magnetic north.
b. Runway centerline marking – Identifies the center of the runway and provides alignment guidance during takeoff and landings; consists of a line of uniformly spaced stripes and gaps.
c. Runway aiming point marking – Serves as a visual aiming point for a landing aircraft; two rectangular markings consist of a broad white stripe located on each side of the runway centerline and approximately 1,000 feet from the landing threshold.
d. Runway touchdown zone markers – Identify the touchdown zone for landing operations and are coded to provide distance information in 500 feet increments; groups of one, two, and three rectangular bars symmetrically arranged in pairs about the runway centerline.
e. Runway side stripe markings – Delineate the edges of the runway and provide a visual contrast between runway and the abutting terrain or shoulders; continuous white stripes located on each side of the runway.
f. Runway shoulder markings – May be used to supplement runway side stripes to identify pavement areas contiguous to the runway sides that are not intended for use by aircraft; painted yellow.
g. Runway threshold markings – Used to help identify the beginning of the runway that is available for landing. Two configurations; wither eight longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline, or the number of stripes is related to the runway width.

11. What are the various types of taxiway markings and what do they consist of? (AIM 2-3-4)

Markings for taxiway are yellow and consist of the following types:
a. Taxiway centerline – Single continuous yellow line; provides wingtip clearance when over center.
b. Taxiway edge – Used to define the edge of taxiway; two types, continuous and dashed.
c. Taxiway shoulder – Usually defined by taxiway edge markings; denotes pavement unusable for aircraft.
d. Surface painted taxiway direction – Yellow background with black inscription; supplements direction signs or when not possible to provide taxiway sign.
e. Surface painted location signs – Black background with yellow inscription; supplements location signs.
f. Geographic position markings – Located at points along low visibility taxi routes; used to identify aircraft during low visibility operations.

12. What are the six types of signs installed on airports? (AIM 2-3-7 through 2-3-13)

a. Mandatory instruction signs – Red background / white inscription; denotes hazardous areas.
b. Location signs – Black background / yellow inscription; used to identify either a taxiway or runway on which an aircraft is located.
c. Direction signs – Yellow background / black inscription; identifies designation(s) of intersecting taxiway(s) leading out of intersection that pilot would expect to turn onto or hold short of.
d. Destination signs – Yellow background/black inscription; signs have arrow showing direction of taxi route to that destination.
e. Information signs – Yellow background/black inscription; provide pilot information on such things as areas that cannot be seen by control tower, radio frequencies, noise abatement procedures, etc.
f. Runway distance remaining signs – Black background with white numeral inscription; indicates distance (in thousands of feet) of landing runway remaining.

13. The acronym LAHSO refers to what specific air traffic control procedure? (AIM 4-3-11)

“Land and Hold Short Operations”. At controlled airports, air traffic control may clear a pilot to land and hold short of an intersecting runway, an intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point on a runway other than an intersecting runway or taxiway. Pilots may accept such a clearance provided that the pilot-in-command determines that the aircraft can safely land and stop within the Available Landing Distance (ALD). Student pilots or pilots not familiar with LAHSO should not participate in the program.

14. Where can Available Landing Distance (ALD) data be found? (AIM 4-3-11)

ALD data are published in the special notices section of the Airport / Facility Directory (A/FD) and in the U.S. terminal Procedures Publications. Controllers will also provide ALD data upon request.

15. Where are runway incursions most likely to occur? (FAA-H-8083-25)

Runway incursions most likely to cause accidents generally occur at complex, high-volume airports where there are parallel / intersecting runways, multiple taxiway / runway intersections, complex taxi patterns, and/or the need for traffic to cross active runways. Data also shows that a disproportionately large number of runway incursions involve general aviation pilots and often result from misunderstood controller instructions, confusion, disorientation, and/or inattention. Nearly all are caused by human error.

16. What are several recommended practices in the prevention of runway incursions? (FAA-H-8083-25)

a. Read back all runway crossing and/or hold-short instructions.
b. Review airport layouts as part of preflight planning and before descending to land, and while taxing as needed.
c. Know airport signage
d. Review NOTAMs for information on runway/taxiway closures and construction areas.
e. Do not hesitate to request progressive taxi instructions from ATC when unsure of the taxi route.
f. Check for traffic before crossing any runway or entering a taxiway.
g. Turn on aircraft lights, and rotating beacon or stroke lights while taxiing.
h. When landing, clear the active runway as quickly as possible, then wait for taxi instructions before further movements.
i. Study and use proper radio phraseology as described in the AIM in order to respond to and understand ground control instructions; and
j. Write down complex taxi instructions at unfamiliar airports.

17. Describe a displaced threshold. (AIM 2-3-3)

It is a threshold located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway. Displacement of the threshold reduces the length of the runway available for landings. The portion of the runway behind it is available for takeoffs in either direction and landings from the opposite direction. A ten-foot-wide white threshold bar is located across the width of the runway at the displaced threshold. White arrows are located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold. White arrows heads are located across the width of the runway just prior to the threshold bar.

18. Describe a tri-color light VASI system. (AIM 2-1-2)

A tri-color visual approach slope indicator (VASI) normally consists of a single light unit projecting a three-color visual approach path into the final approach area of the runway.
Red Below glide path
Amber Above glide path
Green On glide path

19. What is PAPI? (AIM 2-1-2)

The precision approach path indicator (PAPI) uses light units similar to the VASI but are installed in a single row of either two or four light units. These systems have an effective visual range of about 5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles at night. The row of light units is normally installed on the left side of the runway.

20. What is PVASI? (AIM 2-1-2)

Pulsating visual approach slope indicators normally consist of a single light unit projecting a two-color visual approach path into the final approach area of the runway upon which the indicator is installed. The useful range of the system is about four miles during the day and up to ten miles at night.

Pulsating white light Above glide path
Steady white light On glide path
Steady red light Slightly below glide path
Pulsating red light Well below glide path

D. 14 CFR Part 91

1. Can a commercial pilot allow a passenger to carry alcohol on board an aircraft for the purpose of consumption? (14 CFR 91.17)

No, the regulations do not specifically address this issue but do indicate that a person who is intoxicated (or becomes intoxicated) not be allowed on board an aircraft. Except in an emergency, no pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated or who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs (except a medical patient under proper care) to be carried in that aircraft.

2. No person may act as a crew member of a civil aircraft with a blood alcohol level of what value? (14 CFR 1.17)

No person may act or attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft while having .04% by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

3. When are the operation of portable electronic devices not allowed on board an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.21)

No person may operate, nor does may any operate or pilot-in-command of an aircraft allow the operation of any portable electronic device on any f the following U.S.-registered aircraft:
a. Aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operator certificate or an operating certificate, or
b. Any other aircraft while it is operated under IFR.

4. Are there any exceptions allowed concerning portable electronic equipment on board aircraft? (14 CFR 91.21)

a. Portable voice recorders
b. Hearing aids
c. Heart pacemakers
d. Electric shavers
e. Any other portable electronic device that the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used.

5. Preflight action as required by regulation for all flights away from the vicinity of the departure airport shall include a review of what specific information? (14 CFR 91.103)

For a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport:
a. Weather reports and forecasts
b. Fuel requirements
c. Alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed
d. Any known traffic delays of which the pilot-in-command has been advised by ATC.
e. Runway lengths of intended use
f. Takeoff and landing distance data

6. When are flight crew members required to wear their seatbelts? (14 CFR 91.105)

During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crew member shall keep the safety belt fastened while at the crew member station (also, during takeoff and landing only, the shoulder harness, if installed).

7. Is the use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses required when operating an aircraft on the ground? (14 CFR 91.107)

Yes; each person on board a U.S.-registered civil aircraft must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt, and if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff and landing.

8. If a formation flight has been arranged in advance, can passengers be carried for hire? (14 CFR 91.111)

No; no person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

9. What is the maximum, speed allowed when operating inside Class B airspace, under 10,000 feet and within a Class D surface area? (14 CFR 91.117)

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary point of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots. This restriction does not apply to operations conducted within a Class B airspace area. Such operations shall comply with the “below 10,000 feet MSL” restriction:
“No person shall operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL, at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots”.

10. What regulations pertain to altimeter setting procedures? (14 CFR 91.121)

Below 18,000 feet MSL:

a. The current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 nautical miles of the aircraft.
b. If there is no station within the area described above, the current reported altimeter of an appropriate available station.
c. In the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio, the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure.
Note: If barometric pressure exceeds 31.00” (see AIM).
At or above 18,000 feet MSL set to 29.92”hg.
11. What are regulatory fuel requirements for both VFR and IFR flight (day and night)? (14 CFR 91.151, 91.167)

a. VFR conditions:
No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed:
• During the day, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes; or
• At night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes.
b. IFR conditions:
No person may operate a civil aircraft in IFR conditions unless it carries enough fuel (considering weather reports and forecasts) to:
• Complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing;
• Fly from that airport to the alternate airport; and
• Fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
If an alternate is not required, complete the flight to the destination airport with a 45-minute reserve remaining.
12. What minimum flight visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR flight in the following situations? (14 CFR 91.155)
Class C, D, or E Airspace
Less than 10,000 feet MSL:
Visibility: 3 statute miles
Cloud Clearance: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal.

At or above 10,000 feet MSL:
Visibility: 5 statute miles.
Cloud Clearance: 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 statute mile horizontal.

Class G Airspace
1,200 feet or less above the surface (regardless of MSL altitude):
Visibility : 1 statute mile.
Cloud Clearance : Clear of clouds
Visibility : 3 statute miles
Cloud Clearance : 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal.

More than 1,200 feet above the surface but less than 10,000 feet MSL:
Visibility : 1 Statute mile
Cloud Clearance : 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal.
Visibility : 3 statute miles
Cloud Clearance : 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal.

More than 1,200 feet above the surface and at or above 10,000 feet MSL:
Visibility : 5 statute miles
Cloud Clearance : 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 statute mile horizontal.

13. When conducting IFR flight operations, what minimum altitudes are required over surrounding terrain? (14 CFR 91.177)

If no applicable minimum altitudes apply:
a. Operations over an area designated as a mountainous area, an altitude of 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course to be flown; or
b. In any other case, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course to be flown.

14. What are several examples of situations in which an ELT is not required equipment on board the aircraft? (14 CFR 91.207)

Examples of operations where an ELT is not required are:
a. Ferrying aircraft for installation of an ELT
b. Ferrying aircraft for repair of an ELT
c. Aircraft engaged in training flights within a 50-nautical mile radius of an airport.

15. Where is altitude encoding transponder equipment required? (AIM 4-1-19)

In general, the regulations require aircraft to be equipped with Mode C transponders when operating:
a. At or above 10,000 feet MSL over the 48 contiguous states or the District of Columbia, excluding airspace below 2,500 feet AGL;
b. Within 30 miles of a Class B airspace primary airport, below 10,000 feet MSL;
c. Within and above all Class C airspace, up to 10,000 feet MSL;
d. Within 10 miles of certain designated airports, excluding airspace which is both outside the Class D surface area and below 1,200 feet AGL;
e. All aircraft flying into, within, or across the contiguous United States ADIZ.

16. Where are aerobatic flight maneuvers not permitted? (14 CFR 91.303)

No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight –
a. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement;
b. Over an open air assembly of persons;
c. Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport;
d. Within 4 nautical miles of the center line of any Federal airway;
e. Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface; or
f. When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles.
For the purposes of this section, aerobatic flight means an intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in an aircraft’s altitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight.
17. When must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute? (14 CFR 91.307)

a. Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) may execute any international maneuver that exceeds:
• A bank of 60° relative to the horizon; or
• A nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30° relative to the horizon.
b. This regulation does not apply to:
• Flight tests for pilot certification or rating; or
• Spins and other flight maneuvers required by the regulations for any certificate or rating when given by a certified flight instructor or an Airline Transport Pilot.

18. What is required to operate an aircraft towing an advertising banner? (14 CFR 91.311)
No pilot of a civil aircraft may tow anything with that aircraft (other than under 91.309 “Towing gliders”) except in accordance with the terms of a certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator.

19. What categories of aircraft cannot be used in the carriage of persons or property for hire? (14 CFR 91.313, 91.315, and 91.319)

a. Restricted category
b. Limited category
c. Experimental

E. AIM (Aeronautical Information Manual)
1. What is primary radar and secondary radar? (P/CG)

Primary radar – A radar system in which a minute portion of a radio pulse transmitted from a site is reflected by an object and then received back at that site for processing and display at an Air Traffic Control facility.
Secondary radar – A radar system in which the object to be detected is fitted with a transponder. Radar pulses transmitted from the searching transmitter/receiver (interrogator) site are received in the transponder. The reply transmission, rather than the reflected signal, is then received back at the transmitter/receiver site for processing and display at an Air Traffic Control facility.

2. What is airport surveillance radar? (P/CG)

Airport surveillance radar (ASR) is approach control radar used to detect and display an aircraft’s position in the terminal area. ASR provides range and azimuth information but does not provide elevation data. Coverage of ASR can extend up to 60 miles.

3. Describe the various types of terminal radar services available for VFR aircraft. (AIM 4-1-17)

Basic radar service – Safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring (on a workload-permitting basis) and sequencing at locations where procedures have been established for this purpose and/or when covered by a letter of agreement.
TRSA service – Radar sequencing and separation service for participating VFR aircraft in a TRSA.
Class C service – This service provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation between IFR, and VFR aircraft, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport.
Class B service – Provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation of VFR arrivals to the primary airport(s).

4. What frequencies are monitored by most FSS’s other than 121.5? (AIM 4-2-14)

FSS’s and supplemental Weather Service Locations are allocated frequencies for different functions: for example, 122.0 MHz is assigned as the En route Flight Advisory Service frequency at selected FSS’s. In addition, certain FSS’s provide Local Airport Advisory on 123.6 MHz. Frequencies are listed in the Airport/Facility Directory. If you are in doubt as to what frequency to use, en route simplex frequency.

5. If operations are not being conducted in airspace requiring a transponder, can an aircraft equipped with transponder leave it off? (AIM 4-1-19)

In all cases, while in controlled airspace (Class A, B, C, D or E airspace) each pilot operating an aircraft equipped with an operable ATC transponder maintained in accordance with 14 CFR §91.413 shall operate the transponder, including Mode C if installed, on the appropriate code or as assigned by ATC. In Class G airspace (uncontrolled airspace), the transponder should be operating while airborne, unless otherwise requested by ATC.

6. At what altitude would a pilot expect to encounter military aircraft when navigating through a military training route designated “VR1207

Less than 1,500 AGL; Military training routes with no segment above 1,500 feet AGL shall be identified by four-digit characters; e.g., IR 1206, VR1207. MTRs that include one or more segments above 1,500 feet AGL shall be identified by three-digit characters; e.g., IR206, VR207.

7. What is a composite flight plan? (AIM 5-1-7)

Flight plans which specify VFR operations for one portion of the flight and IFR for another will be accepted by the FSS at the point of departure. If VFR flight is conducted for the first portion and IFR for the last portion:
a. The pilot should report the departure time to the FSS with which he filed his VFR/IFR flight plan;
b. At the point of intended change, close the VFR portion;
c. Request ATC clearance from the FSS nearest the point at which the change from VFR to IFR is proposed; and
d. Remain in VFR weather conditions until operating in accordance with the IFR clearance.

8. What is an “abbreviated” IFR flight plan? (P/CG)

An abbreviated IFR flight plan is an authorization by ATC requiring pilots to submit only that information needed for the purpose of ATC. It is frequently used by aircraft which are airborne and desire an instrument approach or by an aircraft on the ground which desires to climb to VFR-On-Top conditions.

9. How long will a flight plan remain on file after the proposed departure time has passed? (AIM 5-1-12)

To prevent computer saturation in the en route environment, parameters have been established to delete proposed departure flight plans which have not been activated. Most centers have this parameter set so as to delete these flight plans a minimum of 1 hour after the proposed departure time.

10. If you fail to report a change in arrival time or forget to close your flight plan, when will search and rescue procedures being? (AIM 5-1-13)

If you fail to report or cancel your flight plan within ½ hour after your ETA, search and rescue procedures are started.

11. What constitutes a change in flight plan? (AIM 5-1-11)

In addition to altitude or flight level, destination and/or route changes, increasing or decreasing the speed of the aircraft constitutes a change in flight plan. Therefore, anytime the average true airspeed at cruising altitude between reporting points varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by + / – 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater, ATC should be advised.

12. What is a DVFR flight plan? (AIM 5-1-6)

Defense VFR; VFR flights into a coastal or domestic ADIZ/DEWIZ are required to file VFR flight plans for security purposes. The flight plan must be filed before departure.

13. What is an ADIZ? (AIM 5-6-1)

All aircraft entering domestic U.S. airspace from points outside must provide for identification prior to entry. To facilitate early identification of all aircraft in the vicinity of U.S. and international airspace boundaries, Air Defense Identification Zones (ADIZs) have been established.

14. What requirements must be satisfied prior to operations into, within or across an ADIZ? (AIM 5-6-1)

Operational requirements for aircraft operations associated with the ADIZ are as follows:
Flight plan – An IFR or DVFR flight plan must be filed with the appropriate aeronautical facility.
Two-way radio – An operating two-way radio is required.
Transponder – Aircraft must be equipped with an operable radar beacon transponder having altitude reporting (Mode C) capabilities. The transponder must be turned on and set to the assigned ATC code.
Position reports – For IFR flights, normal position reporting. For DVFR flights, an estimated time of ADIZ penetration must be filed at least 15 minutes prior to entry.
Aircraft position tolerance – Over land, a tolerance of +/- 5 minutes from the estimated time over a reporting point and within 10 NM from the centerline of an intended track over an estimated reporting point. Over water, a tolerance of +/- 5 minutes from the estimated time over a reporting point or point of penetration and within 20 NM from centerline of an intended track over an estimated reporting point.

15. Briefly describe the six classes of U.S. airspace. (AIM 3-2-2 though 3-2-6, and 3-3-1)

Class A airspace – Generally, that airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600, including airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska; and designated international airspace beyond 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic procedures are applied.
Class B airspace – Generally, airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports in terms of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. The configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored and consists of a surface area and two or more layers (some Class B airspace areas resemble upside down wedding cakes), and is designated to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace. An ATC clearance is required for all aircraft to operate in the area, and all aircraft cleared as such receive separation services within the airspace. The cloud clearance requirement for VFR operation is “clear of clouds”.
Class C airspace – Generally, airspace from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and that have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. Although the configuration of each Class C airspace area is individually tailored, the airspace usually consists of a 5 NM radius core surface area that extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation, and a 10 NM radius shelf that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation.
Class D airspace – Generally, airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower. The configuration of each Class D airspace area is individually tailored and when instrument procedures are published, the airspace will normally be signed to contain those procedures.
Class E (controlled) airspace – Generally, if the airspace is not Class A, Class B, Class C, or Class D, and t is controlled airspace, it is Class E airspace. Class E airspace extends upward from either the surface or a designated altitude to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace. Examples include: Surface areas designated for an n airport, extensions to a surface area, airspace used for transition, en route domestic areas, Federal airways, offshore airspace areas.
Class G (uncontrolled airspace- Class G airspace is that portion of the airspace that has not been designated as Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace.

16. Define the following types of airspace. (AIM 3-4-2 through 3-4-8; 3-5-7)

Prohibited Area – For security or other reasons, aircraft flight is prohibited.
Restricted Area – Contains unusual, often invisible hazards to aircraft, flights must have permission from the controlling agency, if VFR. IFR flights will be cleared through or vectored around it.
Military Operations Area – Designed to separate military training from IFR traffic. Permission is not required, but VFR flights should exercise caution. IFR flights will be cleared through or vectored around it.
Warning Area – Same hazards as a restricted area, it is established beyond the 3-mile limit of International Airspace. Permission is not required, but a flight plan is advised.
Alert Area – Airspace containing a high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity. No permission is required, but VFR flights should exercise caution. IFR flights will be cleared through or vectored around it.
Controlled Firing Areas – CFAs contain activities which, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to non-participating aircraft. The distinguishing feature of the CFA, as compared to other special use airspace, is that its activities are suspended immediately when spotter aircraft, radar or ground lookout positions indicate an aircraft might be approaching the area. CFA s are not charted.
National Security Areas – Airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid flying through the depicted NSA. When it is necessary to provide a greater level of security and safety, flight in NSAs may be temporarily prohibited by regulation under the provisions of 14 CFR §99.7.

17. What is a temporary flight restrictions area and how would you know it exists? (14 CFR 91.145; AIM 3-5-3)

The FAA will issue a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) designating an area of airspace in which a temporary flight restriction applies when it determines that one is necessary to protect persons or property on the surface or in the air, to maintain air safety and efficiency, or to prevent the unsafe congestion of aircraft in the vicinity of an aerial demonstration or major sporting event. Always check for appropriate NOTAMs during flight planning.
18. What is a TRSA? (P/CG)

A terminal radar service area (TRSA) consists of airspace surrounding designated airports wherein ATC provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation on a full time basis for all IFR and participating VFR aircraft. Pilot participation is urged but not mandatory.

19. What procedures should be utilized in avoiding wake turbulence when landing? (AIM 7-3-6)

a. Landing behind a larger aircraft, on the same runway; stay at or above the larger aircraft’s final approach flight path. Note its touchdown point and land beyond it.
b. Landing behind a larger aircraft, on a parallel runway closer than 2,500 feet: consider possible drift to your runway. Stay at or above the larger aircraft’s final approach flight path and note its touchdown point.
c. Landing behind a larger aircraft on a crossing runway: cross above the larger aircraft’s flight path.
d. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft on the same runway: note the larger aircraft’s rotation point, and land well before the rotation point.
e. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft on a crossing runway: note the larger aircraft’s rotation point. If it is past the intersection, continue the approach, and land prior to the intersection. If the larger aircraft rotates prior to the intersection, avoid flight below the larger aircraft’s flight path. Abandon the approach unless a landing is ensured well before reaching the intersection.

20. What procedures should be utilized in avoiding wake turbulence when taking off? (AIM 7-3-6)

a. Departing behind a larger aircraft: note the larger aircraft’s rotation point, rotate prior to larger aircraft’s rotation point. Continue climb above the larger aircraft’s climb path until turning clear of its wake.
b. Intersection takeoffs on the same runway: be alert to adjacent larger aircraft operations, particularly upwind of your runway. If intersection takeoff clearance is received, avoid a subsequent heading which will cross below the larger aircraft’s path.
c. Departing or landing after a larger aircraft executing a low approach, missed approach or touch-and-go landing; ensure that an interval of at least 2 minutes has elapsed before you takeoff or land. Because vortices settle and move laterally near the ground, the vortex hazard may continue to exist along the runway, particularly in light quartering wind situations.
d. En route VFR (thousand foot altitude plus 500 feet): avoid flight below and behind a large aircraft’s path. If a larger aircraft is observed above or on the same track (meeting or overtaking), adjust your position laterally, preferably upwind.

21. Who is responsible for wake turbulence avoidance, the pilot or the air traffic controller? (AIM 7-3-8)

The pilot is responsible. Acceptance of instructions from ATC (traffic information, follow an aircraft, visual approach clearance), is acknowledgment that the pilot has accepted responsibility for his/her own wake turbulence separation.

22. Define the term hydroplaning. (FAA-H-8083-3)

Hydroplaning occurs when the tires are lifted off a runway surface by the combination of aircraft speed and a thin film of water present on the runway.

23. What are the three basic types of hydroplaning? (FAA-H-8083-3)

Dynamic – Occurs when there is standing water on the runway surface. Water about 1/10- inch deep acts to lift the tire off the runway. The minimum speed at which dynamic hydroplaning occurs has been determined to be about 8.6 times the square root of the tire pressure in pounds per square inch.
Viscous – Occurs as a result of the viscous properties of water. A very thin film of fluid cannot be penetrated by the tire and the tire consequently rolls on top of the film. Viscous hydroplaning can occur at much slower speeds than dynamic hydroplaning but requires a smooth acting surface.
Reverted Rubber Hydroplaning – Occurs when a pilot, during the landing roll, locks the brakes for an extended period of time while on a wet runway. The friction creates heat which, combined with water, creates a steam layer between the aircraft tire and runway surface.

24. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? (FAA-H-8083-3)

Lowering the nose wheel on a wet runway of adequate length will reduce angle of attack and stabilize the airplane during rollout. Therefore it is important to have the nose tire tracking as soon as possible. Also, retracting the flaps as soon as possible will improve traction. This should be done with caution, however, especially if operating a retractable gear airplane. Above all, use good judgment and follow recommendations provided by the manufacturer.

25. What are several types of illusions in flight which may lead to errors in judgment on landing? (AIM 8-1-5)

Runway width illusion – Narrower than usual runway creates illusion aircraft is higher than actual; pilot tends to fly a lower approach than normal.
Runway and terrain slope illusion – Up sloping runway / terrain creates illusion aircraft is higher than actual; pilot tends to fly a lower approach than normal. Down sloping runway / terrain has the opposite effect.
Featureless terrain illusion – An absence of ground features creates illusion that aircraft is higher than actual; pilot tends to fly a lower approach than normal.
Atmospheric illusions – Rain on windscreen creates illusion of greater height; atmospheric haze creates illusion of greater distance from runway; pilot tends to fly a lower approach than normal.

26. What is the most effective method of scanning for other air traffic? (AIM 8-1-6)

Effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central vision field. Each movement should not exceed 10°, and each area should be observed for at least 1 second to enable detection. Although horizontal back and forth eye movements seem preferred by most pilots, each pilot should develop a comfortable scanning pattern ad then adhere to it to ensure optimum scanning.

27. Discuss recommended collision avoidance procedures and considerations in the following situations. (FAA-H-8083-25)

a. Before Takeoff – Before taxing onto a runway or landing area in preparation for takeoff, scan the approach area for possible landing traffic, executing appropriate maneuvers to provide a clear view of the approach area.
b. Climbs and Descents – During climbs and descents in flight conditions that permit visual detection of other traffic, make gentle banks left and right at a frequency that allows continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
c. Straight and Level – During sustained periods of straight-and-level flight, execute appropriate clearing procedures at periodic intervals.
d. Traffic Patterns – Entries into traffic patterns while descending should be avoided.
e. Traffic at VOR Sites – Due to converging traffic, maintain sustained vigilance in the vicinity of VORs and intersections.
f. Training Operations – Maintain vigilance and make clearing turns before a practice maneuver. During instruction, the pilot should be asked to verbalize the clearing procedures (call out clear “left, right, above, below”). High-wing and low-wing aircraft have their respective blind spots: For high-wing aircraft, momentarily raise the wing in the direction of the intended turn and look for traffic prior to commencing the turn; for low-wing aircraft, momentarily lower the wing.

F. Night Flight Operations

1. What equipment is required on an aircraft for night flights? (14 CFR 91.205)

a. Approved position lights;
b. An approved aviation red or aviation white anti collision light system;
c. If the aircraft is operated for hire, one electric landing light;
d. An adequate source of electrical energy for all installed electrical and radio equipment; and
e. One spare set of fuses or three spare fuses of each kind required, accessible to the pilot in flight.

2. Explain the arrangement and interpretation of the position lights on an aircraft. (FAA-H-8083-3)

A red light is located on the left wing tip, a green light is located on the right wing tip and a white light is located on the tail. If you see both a green and red light on another aircraft, then the other aircraft is generally approaching your position. If you only see a green light, then the other aircraft is moving left to right in relation to your position. If you only see a red light, then the aircraft is moving right to left in relation to your position.

3. Position lights are required to be on during what period of time? (14 CFR 91.209)

No person may operate an aircraft during the period from sunset to sunrise unless the aircraft has lighted position lights.

4. What operating an aircraft in, or close proximity to, a night operations area, what is required of an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.209)

The aircraft must:
• Be clearly illuminated.
• Have position lights, or
• Be in an area marked by obstruction lights.

5. Are aircraft anti collision lights required to be on during night flight operations? (14 CFR 91.209)

yes; however, if the pilot-in-command determines that because of operating conditions it would be in the interest of safety, the anti-collision lights can be turned off.

6. What are the different types of rotating beacons used to identify airports? (AIM 2-1-8)

a. White and green – lighted land airport
b. *Green alone – lighted land airport
c. White and yellow – lighted water airport
d. *Yellow alone – lighted water airport
e. Green, yellow, and white – lighted heliport
f. White (dual peaked) and green – military airport

*Note : “Green alone” or “yellow alone” beacons are used only in connection with a white-and-green, or white-and-yellow beacon display, respectively.

7. Describe several types of aviation obstruction lighting. (AIM 2-2-3)

a. Aviation red obstruction lights – Flashing aviation red beacons and steady burning aviation red lights.
b. High intensity white obstruction lights – Flashing high intensity white lights during day time with reduced intensity for twilight and night time operation.
c. Dual lighting – A combination of flashing aviation red beacon and steady burning aviation red lights for night time operation and flashing high intensity white lights for daytime operation.

8. What color are runway edge lights? (AIM 2-1-4)

Runway edge lights are white. On instrument runways, however, yellow replaces white on the last 2,000 feet or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone for landings.

9. What color are the lights marking the ends of the runway? (AIM 2-1-4)

The lights marking the ends of the runway emit red light toward the runway to indicate the end of the runway to a departing aircraft, and green light outward from the runway end to indicate the threshold to landing aircraft.

10. Describe runway end identifier lights (REIL). (AIM 2-1-3)

REILs are installed at many airfields to provide rapid and positive identification of the approach end of a particular runway. The system consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights located laterally on each side of the runway threshold. REIL may be either omni directional or unidirectional facing the approach area.

11. What color are taxiway edge lights? (AIM 2-1-9)

Taxiway edge lights emit blue light and are used to outline the edges of taxiways during periods of darkness or restricted visibility conditions.

12. What color are taxiway centerline lights? (AIM 2-1-9)

Taxiway center line lights are steady-burning, green light.

13. How does a pilot determine the status of a light system at a particular airport? (FAA-H-8083-3)

The pilot needs to check the A/FD and any NOTAMs to find out about available lighting systems, light intensities and radio controlled light system frequencies.

14. How does a pilot activate a radio-controlled runway light system while airborne? (AIM 2-1-7)

The pilot activates radio-controlled lights by keying the microphone on a specified frequency. The following sequence can be used for typical radio-controlled lighting systems:
a. On initial arrival, key the microphone seven times to turn the lights on and achieve maximum brightness.
b. If the runway lights are already on upon arrival, repeat the above sequence to ensure a full 15 minutes of lighting; then
c. The intensity of the lights can be adjusted by keying the microphone five or three times within 5 seconds.

G. High-Altitude Operations

1. What are some basic operational advantages when conducting high-altitude operations?

a. True airspeeds increase with altitude
b. Winds aloft are stronger providing tailwind opportunities
c. Capability to see and avoid thunderstorms
d. Better visibility
e. Less turbulence
f. Above the weather instead of in it
g. Reduced chance for icing
h. Conflicts with other air traffic reduced

2. What are the regulations concerning use of supplemental oxygen on board an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.211)

No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry:
a. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, unless, for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutes, the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen.
b. At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet MSL, unless the required flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at those altitudes.
c. At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL, unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen.

3. What are the regulations pertaining to the use of supplemental oxygen on board a “pressurized” aircraft? (14 CFR 91.211)

Above Flight Level 250:
At least a ten-minute supply of supplemental oxygen, in addition to any oxygen required to satisfy 14 CFR §91.211, is available for each occupant of the aircraft of use in the event that a descent is necessitated by loss of cabin pressurization.

Above Flight Level 350:
At least one pilot at the controls of the airplane is wearing and using an oxygen mask that is secured and sealed that either supplies oxygen at all times or automatically supplies oxygen whenever the cabin pressure altitude of the airplane exceeds 14,000 feet (MSL).

Note: One pilot need not wear and use an oxygen mask while at or below Flight Level 410 if two pilots are at the controls and each pilot has a quick donning type of oxygen mask that can be placed on the face within 5 seconds. Also, if for any reasons at any time it is necessary for one pilot to leave the controls of the aircraft when operating at altitudes above Flight Level 350, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use an oxygen mask until the other pilot has returned to that crewmember’s station.

4. What are the requirements to operate within Class A airspace? (14 CFR 91.135)

a. Operated under IFR at a specific flight level assigned by ATC;
b. Equipped with instruments and equipment required for IFR operations;
c. Flown by a pilot rated for instrument flight; and
d. Equipped, when in Class A airspace, with:
• A radio providing direct pilot/controller communication on the frequency specified by ATC in the area concerned; and
• The applicable equipment specified in 14 CFR §91.215 (transponder regulations).

5. What additional equipment is required when operating above Flight Level 240? (14 CFR 91.205)

For flight at and above 24,000 feet MSL: if VOR navigational equipment is required (appropriate to the ground facilities to be used) no person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft within the 50 states and the District of Columbia at or above FL 240 unless that aircraft is equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).

6. What type of navigational charts are utilized when operating at altitudes above 18,000 feet? (AIM 9-1-4)

En route high altitude charts are designed for navigation at or above 18,000 feet MSL. This four-color chart series includes the jet-route structure; VHF NAVAIDs with frequency identification, channel, geographic coordinates; selected airports, reporting points. These charts are revised every 56 days.

H. National Transportation Safety Board

1. When is immediate notification to the NTSB required? (NTSB Part 830)

The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB field office when an aircraft accident or any of the following listed incidents occur:
a. Flight control system malfunction
b. Crewmember unable to perform normal duties
c. Turbine engine failure of structural components
d. In-flight fire
e. Aircraft collision in-flight
f. Property damage, other than aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000
g. Overdue aircraft (believed to be in an accident)

2. After an accident or incident has occurred, how soon must a report be filed with the NTSB? (NTSB Part 830)

The operator shall file a report on NTSB From 6120.1 or 6120.2, available from NTSB field offices or from the NTSB, Washington D.., 20594:
a. Within 10 days after an accident;
b. When, after 7 days, an overdue aircraft is still missing.
A report on an “Incident” for which notification is required as described shall be filed only as requested by an authorized representative of the NTSB.
3. Define aircraft accident. (NTSB Part 830.2)

An aircraft accident means an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.

4. Define aircraft incident. (NTSB Part 830.2)

An aircraft incident means an occurrence other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations.

5. Define the term serious injury. (NTSB Part 830.2)

Serious injury means any injury which:
a. Required hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received;
b. Results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or nose);
c. Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle or tendon damage;
d. Involves any internal organ; or
e. Involves second-or third-degree burns affecting more than 5% of the body surface.

6. Define the term substantial damage. (NTSB Part 830.2)

Substantial damage means damage or failure which adversely affects structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft and which normally requires major repair or replacement of the affected component.

7. Will notification to the NTSB always be necessary in any aircraft “accident” even if there were no injuries? (NTSB Part 830)

Refer to the definition of “accident”. An aircraft accident can be substantial damage and/or injuries, and the NTSB always requires a report if this is the case.

8. Where are accident or incident reports filed? (NTSB Part 830)

The operator of an aircraft of an aircraft shall file any report with the field office of the Board nearest the accident or incident. The National Transportation Safety Board field offices are listed in the U.S. government pages of telephone directories in major cities.